Top 100+ Physics NCERT-based NEET UG 2025 Questions: Don’t Try to Avoid!

New Delhi: Are you targeting to score 170+ in the upcoming NEET UG 2025 Physics section? With just 10 days left for the exam, this is your final chance to ensure you’ve tackled the most important Physics questions likely to appear in the exam. These 100-plus handpicked NCERT-based questions cover high-weightage topics and are a must-attempt for every serious aspirant. Continue with the given below set of most important NCERT NEET Physics questions you can’t avoid:

1. Mechanics (18 Questions)

1. A 2 kg object is moving at 10 m/s. What is its kinetic energy?
A. 100 J B. 200 J C. 50 J D. 20 J
Answer: B

2. A ball is thrown at 20 m/s at 30°. What is its range? (Take g = 10 m/s²)
A. 34.64 m B. 20 m C. 17.32 m D. 25 m
Answer: A

3. Newton’s third law applies:
A. In all inertial frames
B. Only in free fall
C. Only at equilibrium
D. Only in non-inertial frames
Answer: A

4. A 1 kg body moves in a circle of radius 2 m at 4 m/s. Centripetal force is:
A. 2 N B. 4 N C. 8 N D. 10 N
Answer: C

5. If external torque is zero, angular momentum is:
A. Constant B. Increases C. Zero D. Decreases
Answer: A

6. A solid cylinder rolls without slipping. Its total kinetic energy is:
A. Only rotational B. Only translational
C. Both A and B D. None
Answer: C

7. Value of g becomes less:
A. When going above Earth’s surface
B. When going below surface
C. At poles
D. Both A and B
Answer: D

8. Work done in circular motion is:
A. Zero B. Positive C. Negative D. Changes
Answer: A

9. Gravitational potential energy near Earth is:
A. mgh B. -GmM/R C. GmM/R D. -mgh
Answer: A

10. SI unit of impulse is:
A. N·s B. kg·m/s² C. kg·m²/s² D. m/s
Answer: A

11. Torque is similar to:
A. Force B. Momentum C. Velocity D. Work
Answer: A

12. For free fall, velocity-time graph is:
A. Linear B. Parabolic C. Hyperbolic D. Constant
Answer: A

13. In elastic collision, conserved quantities are:
A. Only momentum
B. Only kinetic energy
C. Both A and B
D. None
Answer: C

14. Dimensional formula of pressure is:
A. ML⁻¹T⁻² B. ML⁻²T⁻² C. MLT⁻² D. MLT⁻¹
Answer: B

15. Slope of velocity-time graph shows:
A. Acceleration B. Distance C. Speed D. Force
Answer: A

16. Pseudo force appears in:
A. Inertial frame B. Non-inertial frame
C. Equilibrium D. None
Answer: B

17. Escape velocity from Earth is:
A. 7.9 km/s B. 9.8 m/s² C. 11.2 km/s D. 8.4 km/s
Answer: C

18. Rotational kinetic energy of ring is:
A. (1/2)Iω² B. (1/3)Iω² C. Iω² D. (3/2)Iω²
Answer: A

2. Properties of Matter (8 Questions)

19. Surface tension is due to:
A. Viscosity B. Adhesion C. Cohesion D. Gravity
Answer: C

20. Unit of viscosity in SI is:
A. N·s/m² B. Poise C. kg·m/s D. N/m²
Answer: A

21. Water rises in a capillary tube due to:
A. Surface tension B. Gravity C. Friction D. Pressure
Answer: A

22. Bernoulli’s principle is based on:
A. Conservation of energy
B. Conservation of mass
C. Newton’s second law
D. Hooke’s law
Answer: A

23. The pressure at a depth hhh in liquid is:
A. ρgh\rho g hρgh B. ρh\rho hρh C. ghg hgh D. ρh/g\rho h / gρh/g
Answer: A

24. The buoyant force on a body in fluid equals:
A. Weight of object
B. Mass of object
C. Weight of displaced fluid
D. Volume of object
Answer: C

25. Unit of surface tension is:
A. N/m B. N·m C. N/m² D. J
Answer: A

26. Fluid with zero viscosity is called:
A. Newtonian B. Non-Newtonian
C. Superfluid D. Lubricant
Answer: C

3. Thermodynamics & Heat (8 Questions)

27. First law of thermodynamics is:
A. Q=ΔU+WQ = \Delta U + WQ=ΔU+W B. Q=WQ = WQ=W
C. ΔU=W\Delta U = WΔU=W D. Q=ΔUQ = \Delta UQ=ΔU
Answer: A

28. Gas expansion without heat loss is called:
A. Isothermal B. Adiabatic
C. Isochoric D. Isobaric
Answer: B

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29. Specific heat at constant pressure is:
A. Cp B. Cv C. R D. Zero
Answer: A

30. SI unit of heat is:
A. Calorie B. Watt C. Joule D. Kelvin
Answer: C

31. In isothermal expansion, temperature:
A. Increases B. Decreases C. Constant D. Zero
Answer: C

32. Zeroth law of thermodynamics deals with:
A. Energy B. Pressure C. Heat D. Thermal equilibrium
Answer: D

33. Heat transfer without medium is:
A. Conduction B. Convection
C. Radiation D. None
Answer: C

34. In a cyclic process, net internal energy change is:
A. Positive B. Negative C. Zero D. Infinite
Answer: C

4. Oscillations (6 Questions)

35. The time period of a simple pendulum is given by:
A. T=2πg/lT = 2\pi \sqrt{g/l}T=2πg/l​
B. T=2πl/gT = 2\pi \sqrt{l/g}T=2πl/g​
C. T=2πlT = 2\pi lT=2πl
D. T=2πgT = 2\pi gT=2πg
Answer: B

36. In SHM, acceleration is:
A. Constant B. Directly proportional to displacement
C. Opposite to displacement D. Both B and C
Answer: D

37. SI unit of frequency is:
A. Second B. Meter C. Hertz D. Joule
Answer: C

38. Which quantity remains constant in SHM?
A. Acceleration B. Velocity
C. Total energy D. Displacement
Answer: C

39. The restoring force in SHM is:
A. Constant B. Proportional to displacement
C. Inversely proportional to displacement D. Zero
Answer: B

40. Frequency of a pendulum depends on:
A. Mass B. Length C. Amplitude D. Shape
Answer: B

5. Waves (6 Questions)

41. Speed of a wave is given by:
A. v=λfv = \lambda fv=λf B. v=f/λv = f / \lambdav=f/λ
C. v=f2λv = f^2 \lambdav=f2λ D. v=λ/fv = \lambda / fv=λ/f
Answer: A

42. SI unit of wave number is:
A. Hz B. m/s C. m D. 1/m
Answer: D

43. In longitudinal waves, particles move:
A. Perpendicular to wave B. Along the wave
C. Randomly D. Circularly
Answer: B

44. Sound cannot travel through:
A. Solid B. Liquid C. Gas D. Vacuum
Answer: D

45. The distance between two crests is called:
A. Frequency B. Wavelength
C. Amplitude D. Time period
Answer: B

46. Node is the point where:
A. Amplitude is max B. Amplitude is zero
C. Frequency is zero D. None
Answer: B

6. Electrostatics (10 Questions)

47. SI unit of electric charge is:
A. Volt B. Ampere C. Coulomb D. Ohm
Answer: C

48. Like charges:
A. Attract B. Repel C. No force D. Cancel each other
Answer: B

49. Coulomb’s law constant kkk is:
A. 9×109 Nm2/C29 \times 10^9 \, \text{Nm}^2/\text{C}^29×109Nm2/C2
B. 8.99×10−98.99 \times 10^{-9}8.99×10−9
C. 1×1061 \times 10^61×106
D. 10310^3103
Answer: A

50. Electric field is:
A. Scalar B. Vector
C. Tensor D. Constant
Answer: B

51. Unit of electric field:
A. N·m/C B. N/C C. C/N D. N·m²
Answer: B

52. Direction of electric field is:
A. Negative to positive
B. Positive to negative
C. Towards positive
D. Away from positive
Answer: D

53. Electric dipole moment is:
A. q⋅dq \cdot dq⋅d B. q/dq/dq/d C. d/qd/qd/q D. q2dq^2 dq2d
Answer: A

54. A conductor in electrostatic equilibrium has:
A. Charges inside only B. Charges on surface
C. No charges D. Charges move freely
Answer: B

55. Gauss’s law is used to find:
A. Magnetic field B. Electric field
C. Resistance D. Capacitance
Answer: B

56. Electric potential is:
A. Energy per unit charge B. Force per unit charge
C. Work per unit mass D. Current × resistance
Answer: A

7. Current Electricity (10 Questions)

57. Ohm’s Law is:
A. V=IRV = IRV=IR B. I=VRI = VRI=VR
C. R=VIR = VIR=VI D. V=I/RV = I/RV=I/R
Answer: A

58. SI unit of resistance is:
A. Volt B. Ampere C. Ohm D. Watt
Answer: C

59. The slope of V-I graph gives:
A. Resistance B. Current
C. Voltage D. Power
Answer: A

60. A good conductor has:
A. High resistance B. Zero resistance
C. Low resistance D. No electrons
Answer: C

61. Resistivity depends on:
A. Length B. Area
C. Material D. Current
Answer: C

62. Power in electric circuit:
A. P=IVP = IVP=IV B. P=I2RP = I^2RP=I2R
C. P=V2/RP = V^2/RP=V2/R D. All of these
Answer: D

63. The unit of electric power is:
A. Joule B. Watt
C. Volt D. Ampere
Answer: B

64. For resistors in series:
A. Total resistance decreases
B. Total resistance increases
C. Current divides
D. Voltage remains same
Answer: B

65. For resistors in parallel:
A. Voltage is same across each
B. Resistance adds
C. Current same in all
D. None
Answer: A

66. A battery converts:
A. Mechanical to electrical
B. Electrical to chemical
C. Chemical to electrical
D. Heat to electrical
Answer: C

8. Moving Charges and Magnetism (6 Questions)

67. Magnetic force on a moving charge is:
A. F=qvBsin⁡θF = qvB \sin \thetaF=qvBsinθ B. F=qB/vF = qB/vF=qB/v
C. F=vq/BF = vq/BF=vq/B D. F=q/BvF = q/BvF=q/Bv
Answer: A

68. SI unit of magnetic field (B):
A. Weber B. Tesla C. Henry D. Volt
Answer: B

69. Magnetic field due to straight wire:
A. B∝rB \propto rB∝r B. B∝1/rB \propto 1/rB∝1/r
C. B∝r2B \propto r^2B∝r2 D. Constant
Answer: B

70. Right-hand thumb rule is used for:
A. Electric field B. Magnetic field
C. Resistance D. Induction
Answer: B

71. Magnetic field inside a solenoid is:
A. Zero B. Constant
C. Varies D. Maximum at center
Answer: B

72. A current-carrying conductor produces:
A. Electric field only
B. Magnetic field only
C. Both fields
D. No field
Answer: C

9. Electromagnetic Induction (6 Questions)

73. Faraday’s law is related to:
A. Electric field B. Magnetic field
C. Induced EMF D. Current only
Answer: C

74. EMF is induced when:
A. Circuit is open
B. Magnetic field changes
C. Wire is long
D. Resistance is high
Answer: B

75. Lenz’s law gives:
A. Magnitude of EMF
B. Direction of EMF
C. Unit of EMF
D. Resistance
Answer: B

76. Unit of magnetic flux:
A. Tesla B. Weber
C. Henry D. Ampere
Answer: B

77. Mutual induction occurs in:
A. Single coil B. Two coils
C. Solenoid only D. Magnet only
Answer: B

78. In electromagnetic induction, EMF is induced by:
A. Current B. Resistance
C. Changing flux D. Voltage
Answer: C

10. Alternating Current (6 Questions)

79. AC stands for:
A. Alternate Current B. Alternating Circuit
C. Alternating Current D. All Current
Answer: C

80. The average value of AC over one complete cycle is:
A. Maximum B. Zero
C. Minimum D. Infinity
Answer: B

81. Power in AC is given by:
A. P=VIP = VIP=VI B. P=VIcos⁡ϕP = VI \cos \phiP=VIcosϕ
C. P=I2RP = I^2RP=I2R D. P=V2/RP = V^2/RP=V2/R
Answer: B

82. The device that changes AC voltage is:
A. Transformer B. Generator
C. Motor D. Rectifier
Answer: A

83. In a purely inductive circuit, the current:
A. Leads voltage by 90°
B. Lags voltage by 90°
C. Is in phase
D. None
Answer: B

84. The frequency of AC used in India is:
A. 100 Hz B. 50 Hz
C. 60 Hz D. 25 Hz
Answer: B

11. Electromagnetic Waves (4 Questions)

85. EM waves are:
A. Mechanical B. Longitudinal
C. Transverse D. Both
Answer: C

86. Speed of EM waves in vacuum is:
A. 3×108 m/s3 \times 10^8 \, m/s3×108m/s B. 1.5×108 m/s1.5 \times 10^8 \, m/s1.5×108m/s
C. 3×106 m/s3 \times 10^6 \, m/s3×106m/s D. 1×108 m/s1 \times 10^8 \, m/s1×108m/s
Answer: A

87. EM waves carry:
A. Only electric field
B. Only magnetic field
C. Energy and momentum
D. Only charge
Answer: C

88. Which of these is not an EM wave?
A. X-rays B. Sound waves
C. Radio waves D. UV rays
Answer: B

12. Ray Optics (12 Questions)

89. Speed of light is maximum in:
A. Glass B. Air
C. Water D. Vacuum
Answer: D

90. Unit of power of lens is:
A. Watt B. Dioptre
C. Joule D. Volt
Answer: B

91. Mirror formula is:
A. 1f=1u+1v\frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{u} + \frac{1}{v}f1​=u1​+v1​
B. 1f=1v−1u\frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{v} – \frac{1}{u}f1​=v1​−u1​
C. f=u+vf = u + vf=u+v D. f=uvf = uvf=uv
Answer: B

92. Focal length of a plane mirror is:
A. Infinite B. Zero
C. 1 D. 100
Answer: A

93. For convex lens, focal length is:
A. Positive B. Negative
C. Zero D. Infinite
Answer: A

94. Real image is always:
A. Virtual B. Inverted
C. Erect D. Behind mirror
Answer: B

95. If object is at 2F in convex lens, image is:
A. At 2F B. Between F and 2F
C. At F D. At infinity
Answer: A

96. Total internal reflection occurs when:
A. Light enters glass from air
B. Light goes from denser to rarer
C. Angle is small
D. None
Answer: B

97. Critical angle depends on:
A. Frequency B. Angle of incidence
C. Medium D. Wavelength
Answer: C

98. Which lens is used in a magnifying glass?
A. Convex B. Concave
C. Plano-convex D. Cylindrical
Answer: A

99. If object distance is equal to focal length of convex lens, the image is:
A. Real and inverted
B. Virtual and erect
C. At infinity
D. No image
Answer: C

100. Ray passing through optical center of lens:
A. Deviates B. Passes undeviated
C. Forms shadow D. Reflects back
Answer: B

13. Wave Optics (6 Questions)

101. Wave nature of light is proved by:
A. Reflection B. Refraction
C. Interference D. Polarisation
Answer: C

102. In Young’s double slit experiment, fringes are due to:
A. Reflection B. Refraction
C. Diffraction D. Interference
Answer: D

103. In diffraction, light bends around:
A. Corners B. Mirrors
C. Lenses D. Screens
Answer: A

104. Central fringe in YDSE is:
A. Bright B. Dark
C. Colored D. None
Answer: A

105. Polarised light is obtained using:
A. Glass B. Prism
C. Polaroid D. Mirror
Answer: C

106. Width of fringe in YDSE is directly proportional to:
A. Slit separation B. Screen distance
C. Source intensity D. Slit width
Answer: B

14. Modern Physics (9 Questions)

107. Photoelectric effect is explained by:
A. Newton B. Einstein
C. Bohr D. Planck
Answer: B

108. Unit of Planck’s constant is:
A. J B. Js
C. J/m D. W
Answer: B

109. Energy of photon is:
A. E=mc2E = mc^2E=mc2 B. E=hfE = hfE=hf
C. E=hv2E = hv^2E=hv2 D. E=h/vE = h/vE=h/v
Answer: B

110. Work function is the:
A. Total energy of atom
B. Minimum energy to remove electron
C. Mass energy
D. Ionisation energy
Answer: B

111. In photoelectric effect, electrons are emitted only if:
A. Voltage is high
B. Frequency is below threshold
C. Frequency is above threshold
D. Light is dim
Answer: C

112. Dual nature of light means:
A. Particle only B. Wave only
C. Wave and particle both D. Neither
Answer: C

113. De Broglie wavelength is given by:
A. λ=h/p\lambda = h/pλ=h/p B. λ=p/h\lambda = p/hλ=p/h
C. λ=h⋅p\lambda = h \cdot pλ=h⋅p D. λ=h2/p\lambda = h^2/pλ=h2/p
Answer: A

114. In Bohr’s model, angular momentum is quantized as:
A. nℏn\hbarnℏ B. nhnhnh
C. nh/2nh/2nh/2 D. 2nh2nh2nh
Answer: A

115. Hydrogen spectrum line in visible region is:
A. Lyman B. Balmer
C. Paschen D. Pfund
Answer: B

This collection of NEET Physics MCQS has been carefully curated and organised chapter-wise to cover all high-weightage topics in a simplified manner. Each question is designed to reinforce key concepts and enhance conceptual clarity, making it an effective tool for last-minute revision and practice.

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