New Delhi: NEET Biology MCQs play a crucial role in shaping an effective preparation strategy for the NEET 2025 exam. Regularly practicing these questions not only strengthens the foundational understanding but also reinforces key concepts and sharpens problem-solving skills. To support students in their journey, we have compiled a set of 200+ Biology questions that are frequently repeated in the NEET exam.
These questions are not just important — they are some of the most commonly asked in previous years. Solving them can make your revision more efficient, help you avoid common mistakes, and significantly boost your overall score.
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200+ Most Repeated NEET UG 2025 Biology MCQs
Q. Which part of the brain is responsible for thermoregulation and hunger?
A) Cerebellum
B) Medulla oblongata
C) Hypothalamus
D) Cerebrum
Answer – C
Q. Identify the enzyme that digests proteins in the stomach.
A) Amylase
B) Lipase
C) Pepsin
D) Trypsin
Answer – C
Q. Which hormone increases heart rate and respiratory rate during emergency situations?
A) Adrenaline (Epinephrine)
B) Insulin
C) Thyroxine
D) Cortisol
Answer – A
Q. How is oxygen transported in the blood?
A) 50% by hemoglobin, 50% dissolved
B) 100% dissolved in plasma
C) 97% by hemoglobin, 3% dissolved in plasma
D) 80% by RBC, 20% by plasma
Answer – C
Q. The regulation of temperature by organisms is vital for their survival and metabolic stability. In terms of temperature regulation, select the option that correctly classifies humans.
A) Ectothermic
B) Endothermic
C) Poikilothermic
D) None of these
Answer – B
Q. Which part of the alimentary canal does not generate enzymes?
A) Mouth
B) Stomach
C) Duodenum
D) Oesophagus.
Answer – D
Q. A patient is typically advised to increase the daily consumption of meat, legumes, milk, and eggs in the diet when he or she suffers from:
A) Kwashiorkor
B) Rickets
C) Anaemia
D) Scurvy
Answer: A
Q. In the human body, Carbon Dioxide can exist in many forms. Which form is the most frequently used to transport Carbon Dioxide?
A) Dissolved Carbon Dioxide.
B) Carbaminohaemoglobin.
C) Bicarbonate.
D) Urea
Answer: C
Q. Which of the following statements correctly explains the harmful effect of carbon monoxide on human breathing?
A) It causes damage to the Red Blood cells
B) It reduces the effective transport of Carbon Dioxide
C) It reduces the effective transport of Oxygen
D) It increases the effective transport of Carbon Dioxide
Answer: C
Q. Taking human breathing possess into consideration, select the correct statement out of the following.
A) The process of Inspiration is Passive but Expiration is Active.
B) The process of Inspiration is Active but Expiration is Passive.
C) Both Inspiration and Expiration are passive processes.
D) Both Inspiration and Expiration are active processes.
Answer: B
Q. As per natural selection, the fittest individuals are those who are:
A) Best adapted to the environment.
B) Worst equipped to cope with special environmental conditions.
C) Less contributor to the gene pool.
D) Producing many offspring, but only few survive.
Answer: (A)
Q. In a dihybrid cross, what is the phenotypic ratio in the F2 generation?
A) 3:1
B) 1:2:1
C) 9:3:3:1
D) 1:1
Answer: C
Q. A woman with blood group A marries a man with blood group B. What could be the blood group of their child?
A) A only
B) B only
C) A, B, AB, O
D) AB only
Answer: C
Q. Which enzyme is used in DNA replication?
A) Ligase
B) DNA Polymerase
C) RNA Polymerase
D) Endonuclease
Answer: B
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Q. What was the feeding habit of the founder species of Darwin finches?
A) Fruit eater
B) Seed eater
C) Insectivorous
D) Cactus eater
Answer: (B)
Q. Homologous organs support which theory?
A) Abiogenesis
B) Evolution by common ancestry
C) Mutation theory
D) Natural selection
Answer: (B)
Q. The type of natural selection in which, more individuals acquire peripheral character value at both ends of the distribution curve is:
A) Directional selection
B) Disruptive selection
C) Stabilising selection
D) Both (2) and (3)
Answer: (B)
Q. Dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from the Earth about:
A) 56 mya
B) 35 mya
C) 45 mya
D) 65 mya
Answer: (D)
Q. Skull of baby chimpanzee is more like skull of:
A) Adult chimpanzee
B) Human baby
C) Adult human
D) Neanderthal man
Answer: (C)
Q. Read the following statements and choose the option with incorrect statement.
A) The Big Bang theory attempts to explain the origin of universe.
B) Big Bang theory talks of a singular huge explosion unimaginable in physical terms.
C) The gases condensed under gravitation and formed the galaxies of the present day universe.
D) Earth was supposed to have been formed about 8000 years back.
Answer: (D)
Q. This statement regarding enzyme inhibition is correct
(a) non-competitive inhibitors often bind to the enzyme irreversibly
(b) non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme can be overcome by adding a large amount of substrate
(c) competitive inhibition is observed when substrate and inhibitor compete for the active site on enzyme
(d) competitive inhibition is observed when substrate competes with an enzyme to bind to an inhibitor protein
Answer: (c)
Q. In the rainy season, doors get swelled up due to
(a) Transpiration
(b) Imbibition
(c) Diffusion
(d) Respiration
Answer: (b)
Q. Peroxisomes are involved in which type of reactions pertaining to plant photosynthesis?
(a) Calvin Cycle
(b) Glycolytic cycle
(c) Glyoxylate cycle
(d) Bacterial photosynthesis
Answer: (c)
Q. In C3 and C4 plants, primary carboxylation takes place with the help of
(a) PEP carboxylse and pyruvate carboxylase
(b) RuBP carboxylase and PEP carboxylase
(c) PEP carboxylase and RuBP carboxylase
(d) RuBP carboxylase and pyruvate carboxylase
Answer: (b)
Q. The fundamental feature of Kranz Anatomy of C4 plants is
(a) Presence of agranal chloroplasts in bundle sheath cells and granal chloroplasts in mesophyll cells
(b) Presence of granal chloroplasts in bundle sheath cells and agranal chloroplasts in mesophyll cells
(c) Presence of chloroplasts in epidermal and mesophyll cells
(d) Presence of agranal chloroplasts in both mesophyll and bundle sheath cells
Answer: (a)
Q. A phosphoglyceride is always composed of
(a) only an unsaturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphatethe group is also attached
(b) only a saturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached
(c) an unsaturated or saturated fatty acid esterified to a phosphate molecule to which a glycerol molecule is also attached
(d) an unsaturated or saturated fatty acid esterified to a glycerol molecule to which a phosphate group is also attached
Answer: (d)
Q. The statement which is incorrect with respect to enzyme action is
(a) Addition of a lot of succinates does not reverse the inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by malonate
(b) the substrate binds with the enzyme as its active site
(c) a non-competitive inhibitor binds the enzyme at a site distinct from that which binds the substrate
(d) malonate is a competitive inhibitor of succinic dehydrogenase
Answer: (a)
Q. Macromolecule chitin is
(a) phosphorous containing polysaccharide
(b) nitrogen containing polysaccharide
(c) sulphur containing polysaccharide
(d) simple polysaccharide
Answer: (b)
Q. The most abundant protein in the animal world is
(a) Trypsin
(b) Collagen
(c) Haemoglobin
(d) Insulin
Answer: (b)
Q. This is a wrongly matched pair
(a) Alcohol – Nitrogenase
(b) Detergents – Lipase
(c) Textile – Amylase
(d) Fruit juice – Pectinase
Answer: (a)
Q. What is the function of Sertoli cells?
A) Produce testosterone
B) Nourish spermatids
C) Produce eggs
D) Trigger ovulation
Answer: B
Q. Which hormone triggers ovulation?
A) FSH
B) Progesterone
C) LH
D) Estrogen
Answer: C
Q. Which part of the plant protects the embryo?
A) Ovule
B) Cotyledon
C) Seed coat
D) Micropyle
Answer: C
Q. What is the role of micropyle in seeds?
A) Passage for embryo
B) Entry of water and oxygen during germination
C) Absorption of nutrients
D) Removal of waste
Answer: B
Q: Which of the following is a characteristic feature of the temperate deciduous forest?
a) Evergreen trees
b) High biodiversity
c) Seasonal shedding of leaves
d) Sparse vegetation
Answer: C
Q. The conversion of nitrogen gas to ammonia by nitrogen-fixing bacteria is known as:
a) Ammonification
b) Nitrogen fixation
c) Nitrification
d) Denitrification
Answer: B
Q. Which of the following is the most significant source of methane in the atmosphere?
a) Volcanic eruptions
b) Forest fires
c) Livestock digestion
d) Fossil fuel combustion
Answer: C
Question: In an aquatic ecosystem, which zone is most productive in terms of primary productivity?
a) Profundal zone
b) Benthic zone
c) Littoral zone
d) Pelagic zone
Answer: C
Q. The process of converting ammonia to nitrites and then to nitrates is called:
a) Denitrification
b) Nitrogen fixation
c) Nitrification
d) Ammonification
Answer: C
Q. Which of the following is a direct consequence of global warming?
a) Increased ice sheet volume
b) Rising sea levels
c) Reduced CO2 concentration in the atmosphere
d) Cooling of Earth’s surface
Answer: B
Q. The term “biogeochemical cycle” refers to:
a) The movement of energy through an ecosystem
b) The movement of chemicals in a biological system
c) The flow of matter through the biotic components only
d) The continuous recycling of nutrients in ecosystems
Answer: D
Q. Which of the following is the primary cause of eutrophication in water bodies?
a) High levels of dissolved oxygen
b) Excessive use of chemical fertilizers
c) Increased population of aquatic animals
d) Decreased organic matter content
Answer: B
Q. The primary function of the ozone layer is to:
a) Absorb all solar radiation
b) Protect the Earth from harmful UV radiation
c) Generate oxygen for living organisms
d) Regulate the Earth’s temperature
Answer: B
Q. Which of the following species is a keystone species in an ecosystem?
a) Green algae
b) Wolves in Yellowstone National Park
c) Grasshoppers
d) Deer in a forest ecosystem
Answer: B
Q. This tissue includes the blood tissue
(a) Muscle tissue
(b) Connective tissue
(c) Epithelial tissue
(d) Nervous tissue
Answer: (b)
Q. This cell is the longest in the human body
(a) Muscle cells
(b) Nerve cells
(c) Bone cells
(d) Gland cells
Answer: (b)
Q. This cell organelle does not contain DNA
(a) Nucleus
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Lysosomes
(d) Chloroplast
Answer: (c)
Q. Which of this is/are examples of an organ containing a smooth muscle
(a) Iris of eye
(b) Bronchi only
(c) Uterus only
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)
Q. This structure of the plant cell is non-living
(a) Nucleus
(b) cell wall
(c) cytoplasm
(d) Mitochondrion
Answer: (b)
Q. The organelle serving as a primary packaging area for molecules that will be distributed throughout the cell is
(a) Vacuole
(b) Plastids
(c) Mitochondria
(d) Golgi apparatus
Answer: (d)
Q. The main difference between human cheek cells and onion peel cells is
(a) Presence of cell wall in onion peel cells
(b) Presence of mitochondria in onion peel cells
(c) Absence of endoplasmic reticulum in cheek cells
(d) Absence of the plasma membrane in cheek cells
Answer: (a)
Q. This jellylike substance inside the plasma membrane in which all cell organelles are floating is
(a) Cytoplasm
(b) Tonoplasm
(c) Karyoplasm
(d) Cell sap
Answer: (a)
Q. The Cell theory is not applicable to
(a) Fungi
(b) Algae
(c) Virus
(d) Microbes
Answer: (c)
Q. Animal cells are interconnected by
(a) Plasma membrane
(b) Cell wall
(c) Desmosomes
(d) Plasmodesmata
Answer: (c)
Q. Which of the following reproduce by binary fission?
a). Amoeba
b) Spongilla
c) Yeast
d) Hydra
Answer: A
Q. Flowers with both androecium and gynoecium are called
a). Bisexual flowers
b). Anther
c). Stamens
d). Unisexual flowers
Q. Clones are ⸻
a) Morphologically identical but genetically different
b) Genetically identical but morphologically different
c) Morphologically and genetically identical
d) Genetically and morphologically different
Answer: (c)
Q. Which of the following is not a vegetative propagule?
a). Tuber
b). Zoospore
c). Bulbil
d). Sucker
Answer: B
Q. One nucleus of the pollen tube and secondary nucleus of the ovum grow into
a) Stigma
b) Endosperm
c) Anther
d) Stamen
Answer: B
Q. The stalk of Datura flower at its base is known as
a) Corolla
b) Sepals
c) Thalamus
d) Pedicel
Answer: D
Q. The male reproductive parts of a flower, the stamens, are collectively known as
a) Androecium
b) Filament
c) Anther
d) Gynoecium
Answer: A
Q. The other name for gynoecium is
a) Pistil
b) Stigma
c) Androecium
d) Style
Answer: A
Q.The most invasive weed called the ‘Terror of Bengal’ is ⸻.
a) Pistia stratiotes
b) Water lettuce
c) Water hyacinth
d) Nelumbo nucifera
Answer: c.
Q. Which of the following statements is true about gemmules?
a) They are endogenous spores
b) They are exogenous spores
c) They are seen in Penicillium
b) They are seen in amoeba
Answer: a.
Q. A single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a radioactive molecule is called ?
A. Plasmid
B. Probe
C. selectable marker
D. Vector
Answer: B
Q. There is a restriction endonuclease called Eco RI. What does ‘co’ part in it stand for?
A. Coli
B. Colon
C. Cofactor
D. None of the above
Answer: A
Q. Agarose extracted from sea weeds finds use in __ .
A. Spectrophotometry
B. Gel electrophoresis
C. PCR
D. tissue culture
Answer: B
Q. A gene whose expression helps to identify transformed cells is known as __.
A. Plasmid
B. Selectable marker
C. Structural gene
D. vector
Answer: B
Q. DNA fragments separated on an agarose gel can be visualized after staining with __.
A. ethidium bromide
B. bromophenol blue
C. acetocarmine
D. aniline blue
Answer: A
Q. A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a recombinant plasmid using.
A. Taq polymerase
B. Polymerase III
C. Ligase
D. Eco RI
Answer: C
Q. The Taq polymerase enzyme is obtained from
A. Thermus aquaticus
B. Thiobacillus ferrooxidans
C. Bacillus subtilis
D. Pseudomonas subtilis
Answer: A
Q. Which of the following is an endonuclease?
A. DNase I
B. Hind II
C. Protease
D. RNase restriction
Answer: B
Q. Which of the following restriction enzymes produce blunt ends?
A. Hind III
B. Xho
C. Eco RV
D. Sal I
Answer: C
Q. Which of the following is not a component of downstream processing?
A. Expression
B. Preservation
C. Purification
D. Separation
Answer: D
Q. Compared to genus, which of the following is less general in characters?
(a) Family
(b) Species
(c) Division
(d) Class
Answer: (b)
Q. Regulation of cells’ activity takes place through
(a) Flow of substances
(b) Flow of energy
(c) Flow of hormones
(d) Flow of smoke
Answer: (b)
Q. For wheat, which of the following combinations is correct?
(a) Genus Triticum, family Poaceae, order Poales, Class Monocotyledonae
(b) Genus Triticum, family Poaceae, order Poales, Class Dicotyledonae
(c) Genus Triticum, family Poaceae, order Sapindales, Class Monocotyledonae
(d) Genus Triticum, family Anacardiaceae, order Poales, Class Monocotyledonae
Answer: (a)
Q. The correct sequence of taxonomic categories is:
(a) Species -> genus -> order -> phylum
(b) Species -> order -> genus-> kingdom
(c) Genus -> species -> order -> kingdom
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
Q. Which one of these categories has real existence?
(a) Species
(b) Genus
(c) Kingdom
(d) Phylum
Answer: (a)
Q. A true species comprises of a population
(a) Interbreeding
(b) Sharing the same niche
(c) Reproductively isolated
(d) Feeding over the same food
Answer: (c)
Q. One of the first acts in taxonomy is
(a) Identification
(b) Description
(c) Naming
(d) Classification
Answer: (a)
Q.The common characteristics between tomato and potato will be maximum at the level of their
(a) family
(b) genus
(c) division
(d) order
Answer: (a)
Q. A taxon is
(a) a type of living organisms
(b) a group of related species
(c) a group of related families
(d) a taxonomic group of any ranking
Answer: (d)
Q. The label of a herbarium sheet does not carry information on
(a) local names
(b) name of collector
(c) date of collection
(d) height of the plant
Answer: (d)
